DGCA Module 11A Question Paper March Session 2024

DGCA Module Exam Session 1 of 2024 | Module 11A Question Paper March Session 2024

QUS1: Seat pitch (Came two times in exam)
a- The fore and aft space between each row of seats (EASA 3.3)
b- The left and right distance between each row of seat
c- The vertical distance from cabin floor to cushion

QUS 2: AOA system gives stall warning when
a- aircraft approaches a stall condition (easa 5.37)
b- Wing root approaches stall condition
c- Wing tip approaches stall condition

QUS 3: MTCS
a- Behind an oblique shock wave the velocity of the air is lower
b- As in (a), direction of flow changes
c- As in (a), static pressure and density are higher (EASA 1.18)

QUS 4: MTCS

a- Engine nacelle direct airflow into the engine for cooling and combustion
b- Engine nacelle improves the aerodynamics characteristics of the aircraft
c- Both (a) & (b) (AMR 57,59)

QUS 5: Fuel jettison system requires
a- any fuel system used in integral tank requires jettison system
b- an aircraft’s design landing weight is less than that of the maximum take-off weight (easa10.13)
c- aircraft fuel line fitting are usually either AN or MS fittings requires jettison system
d- All

QUS 6: MTCS
a- High fineness ratio, it is a very thin wing, produces a large amount of skin friction (15A 2-5)
b- Low fineness ratio, it is a very thin wing, produces a less amount of skin friction
c- High fineness ratio, it is a very thick wing, produces a less amount of skin friction
d- Low fineness ratio, it is a very thick wing, produces a large amount of skin friction

QUS 7: MTCS cabin furnishing and installation
a- Tested to ensure that specification for flammability and smoke production are low
b- As in (a)+ Sidewall veneers, seat covers, curtains, partitions, carpet and nearly every other material from which a furnishing is constructed must adhere to certification standards specified in CS-25. (EASA 7.5)
c- As in (b)+ adhere to TSO-25

QUS 8: A waste tank rinse nozzle is fitted
a- to the bottom of the tank to rinse it when servicing
b- to the mid-section of the tank to rinse it when servicing
c- to the top of the tank to rinse it when servicing (EASA 17.7)

QUS 9: Warning system in overhead panel gives warning when
a- Pneumatic leaks b- Hydraulic leaks c- Heat leaks

QUS 10: control surfaces are constructed with composite materials
a- Includes drainage opening in their design
b- Sealed from atmosphere (AMR 57)
c- Must have one drain opening

QUS 11: Type of software must have EASA form 1 or FAA8130-3 Letter of acceptance or equaling
a- DFLD b- LSAP c- Both (a) & (b) (A/c Digital EC & CMPTR SYS 157)

QUS 12: IMA 3rd generation uses
a- AFDX b- B-777 card file c- B-777 ELMS d- All ( Civil avionics sys 334,336)

QUS 13: Water fire extinguisher consist of
a- water b- anti-freeze c- Water and anti-freeze (EASA 8.11)

QUS 14: Open architecture is in
a- IMA 1 st generation b- IMA 3 rd generation c- IMA 2 nd generation ( Civil avionics sys 336)

QUS 16: s differential pressure can range a single Engine reciprocating aircraft
a- 9 psi b- 5 to 9 psi c- 3-5 psi (easa 4.33)

QUS 17: requirements for equipment location on the flight deck are described as
a) within arm’s reach of the pilot while sitting
b) within arm’s reach of the passenger while sitting
c) within arm’s reach of the cabin crew while sitting

QUS 19: Indicated air speed
a- relationship between the ram air pressure and static air pressure (EASA 5.25)
b- relationship between the ram air pressure and pitot air pressure
c- relationship between the pitot air pressure and static air pressure

QUS 20: pressure pneumatic system (35-150 psi) (easa 16.7)
A- used to provide pneumatic power for engine starts
B- used to provide pneumatic power for engine starts, engine de-icing, wing de-icing, air conditioning
C- used to pressurize the aircraft’s hydraulic reservoirs, de-ice the TAT probe
D- All

QUS 22: Source of high-pressure pneumatic system
a- engine driven and onboarded compressor c- ground nitrogen sources
b- ground air d- All (easa 16.3)

QUS 23: fuel can be transferred to and from this tank and used for maintain longitudinal balance is known as
a- Balance tank b- Trim tank c- Load tank d- None (easa 10.30)

QUS 24: Nacelle made of
a- sheet metal and composite components
b- sheet metal or composite components
c- sheet metal and/or composite components (AMR 60)

QUS 25: Cargo nets and barriers are used to
A- keep cargo from shifting B- Prevent mixing of cargo C- Both (easa 7.8)

QUS 26: MTCS Hydraulic fluid
a- Class 1, low density b- Class 1, high density with high fire point (AMR 386)
c- Class 2 have low density d- As in (c), + weight saving

QUS 27: MTCS
A- HYD sys parameters captured in analogue and converted into digital
B- HYD sys parameters captured in digital and converted into analogue
C- HYD sys parameters give direct indication does not require conversion

QUS 28: MTCS
A- Atmosphere pressure decrease with increasing altitude
B- Atmosphere temperature first decrease with increase in altitude then constant
C- Atmosphere density decrease with increase in altitude
D- All

Qus 29: To roll the aircraft around longitudinal axis, pilot rotate control wheel
a- control moved left, left aileron raise up and right aileron raise down
b- control moved left, left aileron raise down and right aileron raise up
c- As in A+ cause left wing descent and right-wing ascent, aircraft banking towards left

d- As in B+ cause left wing ascent and right-wing descent, aircraft banking towards right
QUS 30: Most commonly used landing gear arrangement
a- Tandem b- Try cycle c- Tail wheel (easa 13.3)

QUS 31: MTCS ram air doors
A- Ram air doors are modulated to increase or decrease ram airflow according to the position of wing flaps
B- As in A+, during slow flight, when the flaps are extended the door is open (EASA 4.7)
C- As in A+, during slow flight, when the flaps are extended the door is closed

QUS 32: Toilet system consist of
a- flushing handle, timer, motor and pump assemblies b- As in (a)+ also consist of bowl cover
c- remote indicating flush and motor, pipeline d- None

QUS 33: To stabilize the landing-gear assembly longitudinally
A- Drag link B- Brace link C- Overcenter link (AMR 454)

QUS 34: MTCS
A- Evacuation slides, life rafts, fire extinguishers and oxygen bottles all have inspection requirements that include a pressure checked before each flight (EASA 7.2)
B- All emergency equipment checked once in weekly
C- Pressure check is not mandatory because these all are emergency equipment
D- None

QUS 35: Fiber optic communication network uses
a- T junction b- P junction c- Ring topology d- (b) & (c)

QUS 36: Iridium network uses
a- Low orbit b- medium orbit c- High orbit

QUS 37: Design of control surface similar to
a- Stabilizer b- Wing c- Fuselage (AMR 55,56)
(NOTE: Both wing and stabilizer are given in AMR but when the question ask by words most appropriate is stabilizer

QUS 38: Carrying the loads opposite drag are called
A- Drag wire B- Anti-drag wire C- Skin friction drag (AMR 50)

QUS 39: Ball net
A- at exit B- only at entrance C- All over compartment

QUS 40: Double acting piston displacement pump type hand pump inlet port from reservoir is connected to
a- one end with check valve b- center of the pump c- outlet of the return line