QUS 41: As the speed of aircraft increase
a- pitot pressure increase b- static pressure increase c- pitot pressure decrease
QUS 42: Vertical member of the tailboom are called
a- frames b- bulkheads c- frames, or bulkheads (AMR 27)
QUS 43: Refrigeration bypass valve
a- pneumatically operated and electrically controlled
b- Electrically controlled and electrically operated
c- Electrically operated and pneumatically controlled
d- Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated
QUS 44: Large reciprocating engine cowls
a- Orange peel b- Pearly ply c- Blue peel (15a 1-22)
QUS 45: The structure employed to attach an engine nacelle or pod to a wing or fuselage may be referred to as
A- Strut B- Pylon C- Strut or Pylon (AMR 60)
QUS 46: Permit the loss of an engine with-out the loss of a wing in cases of severe engine damage and resulting vibration and drag forces
A- Mound bracket B- Structural fuses C- Shear bolt D- None (AMR 60)
QUS 47: installed immediately forward of the vertical stabilizer
a- Ventral fin b- Dorsal fin c- Elevator D- Trim tab (AMR 56)
QUS 48: Dorsal fin used to
a- improve the yaw stability of the aircraft
b- provide a streamline fairing between the vertical stabilizer and fuselage
c- Both (a) & (b) (AMR 56)
QUS 49: Balancing control surface trailing edge moves downward
a-static under balancing b- static over balancing c- Both (easa 9.14)
QUS 50: Most paint finishes are made up of ————basic components
A- Five B- Three C- Four D- Two (AMR 113)
QUS 51: DFDR Event button is for (MK TLY 329) A/C electrical and electronic system
A- A discrete signal on the recording to highlight the timing of event
B- A digital signal on the recording to highlight the timing of event
C- To power off the DFDR
QUS 52: The iridium network allows voice and data messages to be routed (MK TLY 245,255) A/C electrical and electronic system
A- Anywhere in the world
B- B/W the flight crew and cabin crew
C- Via Fiber optic network
QUS 53: Lift depend on
a- AOA b- Shape of aerofoil c- Velocity and density of air d- All
QUS 54: Anti-sevo tab is linked to main surface by
a- With spring b- To the bearing c- Jack screw
QUS 55: Lavatory line heated (AMR 683)
a- Pneumatically
b- Heated inside portable water tank
c- Electrically heated below lavatory bowl
QUS 56: Elevator pitch trim
a- Elevator control spring c- Aileron down spring
b- Elevator down spring d- Aileron control spring
QUS 57: Isolation valve used in
a- Cross bleed b- Left bleed c- Right bleed
QUS 58: Drainable sump with effective capacity, in the normal ground and flight altitude is (easa 10.4)
a- 1 % b. 2% c. .25%
QUS 59: Type of FLS
a- LSAP, OSS b- UMS c- LSAP, UMS, OSS
QUS 60: Which pneumatic source can’t use in flight
a- APU source b- Engine source c- Ground source
QUS 61: Information management system
a- Flight crew b- cabin crew c- Maintenance person d- All
QUS 62: capacitor type filter ——–………—–
a- Transformer b- Full wave rectifier c- half wave rectifier
QUS 63: Sweep back wings
a- formation of shock waves is delayed b- decrease in critical Mach number
c- sweep speed up the onset of compressibility effects d- None (easa 1.19)
QUS 64: Yaw damper uses
a- Turn gyro b- Rate gyro c- Electrical gyro
QUS 65: EEC is an example of
a- user modifiable b- LSAP c- DSLD d- OSS (a/c digital EC and computer sys 229)
QUS 66: MTCS during towing, to avoid possible personal injury and aircraft damage
a- cargo doors are closed b- entrance door closed and ladders retracted
c- gear lock installed d- All (OLD 9A 519)
QUS 67: The purpose of microphone is to
a- aquatic energy to electrical b- aquatic energy to sound energy
c- sound energy to electrical d- sound energy to aquatic
QUS 68: Wing with full cantilever type
a- No external bracing member b- External bracing member required
c- Require only control cables d- Both (b) and (c) (EASA 3.9)
QUS 69: A rigid landing gear is commonly found
A- All type of aircraft B- helicopters and sailplanes
C- Commercial aircraft D- Aircraft with retractable landing gear (AMR 446)
QUS 70: In a fixed landing gear shock is absorbed by
a- wheels b- strut c- wheel and strut (AMR 447)
QUS 71: To reduce drag in fixed landing gear
a- Chafing strip used b- fairings used c- Both (a) and (b) (AMR 447)
(NOTE: Chafing strips are used to prevent excessive wear between the sections of the fairing. And Wheel pants are often used to cover the wheel and tire to reduce their drag)
QUS 72: A vertically polarized antenna was used to transmit LF frequency radio waves in the range of
a- 190 kHz to 535 MHz b- 190 kHz to 535 kHz (EASA 5.73)
c- 190 MHz to 535 MHz d- 190 THz to 535 GHz
QUS 73: MTCS (AMR 592)
A- The diluter-control closing mechanism can be used to override the diluter-control operation of the system by mechanically closing off the air-metering port and fully opening the oxygen-metering port.
B- As in (a)+ user can open the emergency metering control, bypass the diluter mechanism, and be supplied with pure Oxygen.
C- As in (a)+ user can operate electrically the switch to open the metering control.
QUS 74: The main system draws its fluid through a standpipe located at a higher level
A- Normal operation B- Emergency operation C- None (easa 11.10)
QUS 75: In optical smoke detector what makes sure that the source LED is on and keeps the output of the source LED Constant
a- LED b- Photo diode c- scatter detector photodiode
QUS 76: Positive dynamic stability
a- amplitude decrease with time b- amplitude increase with time
c- Increase or decrease with time d- none
QUS 77: Cabin pressurization panel is present in cockpit for
a- Auto mode b- Manual mode c- self mode
QUS 78: Moving MAP shown on IFE
a) Takes from a/c Nav sys b) Separate sensor avlble c) Does not interfere with a/c Nav
QUS 79: MTCS Magnetic line places where the variation is zero
a- Isogonic Lines b- Agonic Lines c- Magnetic meridian
QUS 80: Attenuation in an optical fibre is due to
(a) absorption, dispersion, and radiation
(b) absorption, scattering, and radiation
(c) absorption, cross-talk, and noise
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